I'm currently writing a time tabling algorithm for my phD. As part of the algorithm's rationale, I want to prove the following....

ASSUME
n and p are natural numbers, and p >= n

PROVE:

pⁿ>= (p!)/(p-n)!

I proved what I think are the base cases (i.e. n = 0, and n = 1) but now I am stumped.... Any ideas anyone?

Cheers

Rhydian

Rhydian,

and hence you are asking if

pⁿ ≥ p(p-1)(p-2)···(p(n-1))

which it clearly is.

Penny