Question from Andrew:
Please could you answer my Q&Q.
If n.q == k mod (m) (where n, q, k, m, are integers & q is a prime)
Is it true that 'k' is always divisible by q?
(If m has the factor q it looks true but if (m, q) = 1 it is not so obvious?)
Try some simple examples such as 2*3==1(mod5).