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| Math Central | Quandaries & Queries |
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Question from Andrew: Dear Sirs, Please could you answer my Q&Q. If n.q == k mod (m) (where n, q, k, m, are integers & q is a prime) Is it true that 'k' is always divisible by q? (If m has the factor q it looks true but if (m, q) = 1 it is not so obvious?) Many Thanks, Andrew |
Andrew,
Try some simple examples such as 2*3==1(mod5).
Penny
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