Math CentralQuandaries & Queries


Question from Tom, a student:

I encounter a problem in this question:

Prove (p & ~q) v p = p

Do I need to use the absorption law p v (p & q)=p? If yes,how do I cope with the NOT(~) in q?Thank you.

Hi Tom,

Let r be the statement ~q then (p & ~q) v p ≡ (p & r) v p and absorption then implies that this is logically equivalent to p.


About Math Central


Math Central is supported by the University of Regina and The Pacific Institute for the Mathematical Sciences.
Quandaries & Queries page Home page University of Regina PIMS