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| Math Central | Quandaries & Queries |
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Question from Tom, a student: I encounter a problem in this question: Prove (p & ~q) v p = p Do I need to use the absorption law p v (p & q)=p? If yes,how do I cope with the NOT(~) in q?Thank you. |
Hi Tom,
Let r be the statement ~q then (p & ~q) v p ≡ (p & r) v p and absorption then implies that this is logically equivalent to p.
Harley
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