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Shambodeb, I would prove this by induction. It is straightforward to verify it is true for n = 1. Inductive hypotheses: Suppose that for some positive integer k, if y = xk-1 log x then the kth derivative of y is y(k) = (k-1)!/x. Let y = xk+1-1 log x = xk log x and find the (k + 1)st derivative of y.
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